10 exam-style questions with answers and explanations, straight from our 1,030-question bank. Tap an answer to check yourself. When you're ready, take the scored version in the free practice test.
The PES exam has 100 questions and runs 1 hour 30 minutes.
These 10 free PES questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the NASM Performance Enhancement Specialization (PES) blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.
An experienced sprinter rejects a planned deload: "If we reduce volume, I'll lose fitness." Sprint times have slowed and soreness has risen for four days, but there are no medical red flags. Which response best supports sound coaching and athlete ownership?
Correct answer: D - You are worried about losing fitness; let us review the data and agree on a lower-volume plan.
During a split squat, an athlete holds the same 20-kg dumbbell farther in front of the knee while joint angle and acceleration remain similar. What is the primary mechanical effect?
Correct answer: A - External knee torque increases because the resistance moment arm is longer.
A pain-free winger shows a pronounced forward trunk lean during five overhead-squat repetitions. On a heels-elevated retest, squat depth increases and the torso stays markedly more upright. Which finding is most strongly implicated by the retest?
Correct answer: B - Limited ankle dorsiflexion contributing to the original pattern
A countermovement-jump test has an SD of 4.0 cm and reliability of 0.91. SEM = SD x sqrt(1 - reliability), and MDC95 = SEM x 1.96 x sqrt(2). An athlete improves from 42.0 to 44.6 cm. Which interpretation is justified?
Correct answer: C - MDC95 is about 3.3 cm; the 2.6-cm gain may still reflect measurement error.
Two athletes perform drop jumps. Athlete A jumps 0.30 m with 0.15 s ground contact; Athlete B jumps 0.42 m with 0.30 s contact. RSI equals jump height divided by contact time, and contact under 0.25 s is a fast stretch-shortening-cycle action. Which comparison is accurate?
Correct answer: A - Athlete A: RSI 2.0 and fast SSC; Athlete B: RSI 1.4 and slow SSC.
A soccer defender records excellent 5-10-5 shuttle times yet reacts late when an attacker cuts without warning. Which drill most directly targets the missing quality?
Correct answer: B - Opponent-driven mirror drills with unplanned directional cues
A field-sport athlete needs explosive triple-extension training but cannot yet receive a clean safely because front-rack mobility and catch technique are limited. Which exercise best preserves the power objective?
Correct answer: A - A jump shrug from the hang
Ten days before a championship, a well-trained athlete is fit but carrying accumulated fatigue. Training quality remains high when rested. Which adjustment best reflects a performance taper?
Correct answer: C - Reduce volume about 40-60%, retain intensity, and keep brief event-specific exposures.
During repeated sprints in hot conditions, an athlete becomes confused and combative, then collapses. Rectal temperature is 40.7 C. What must happen immediately?
Correct answer: C - Activate EMS and begin immediate cold-water immersion.
A female distance runner consumes 2,450 kcal/day, expends 900 kcal/day in exercise, and has 54 kg of fat-free mass. She also reports three months without menses and a recent bone-stress injury. Using EA = (energy intake - exercise expenditure) / kg FFM/day, which conclusion is most defensible?
Correct answer: D - EA is about 28.7; the combined signs warrant lower training stress and sports-physician and sports-dietitian evaluation.
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